Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 MCQs

Q: How long is the Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 quiz?

Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 runs 25 untimed questions - about 25 min at a steady pace. The set clears at 40% and you can retake it as often as you like.

Q: What kind of questions does Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 ask?

The set answers that: each question carries four options and a full explanation, so you learn the wording an examiner uses, not just the fact behind it.

Q: Where else can I practise Reasoning?

Open the quiz page above, or start from the Reasoning subject page if you want to drill neighbouring lanes in the same sitting.

Q: Do my scores save?

Scores, bookmarks and streaks need the optional Google sign-in. Opening the set and answering questions does not.

Question 1

Choose the number that has a remainder different from the others when divided by 5.

Accepted Answer

137, 192 and 327 each leave remainder 2. 248 leaves remainder 3.

Question 2

A currency chart separates the main currency unit from its fractional subunits. Which name is a main unit?

Accepted Answer

Baht is Thailand's main currency unit. Paisa, cent and fils are fractional currency subunits.

Question 3

On a card, odd-position letters should run forwards consecutively, while even-position letters run backwards consecutively. Which card is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

DWEVGU separates into DEG and WVU; DEG skips F. The other cards separate into ABC/ZYX, HIJ/RQP and MNO/TSR.

Question 4

Mehak sorts energy sources into renewable sources. Which source must be taken out?

Accepted Answer

Natural gas is a finite fossil fuel. Tidal, geothermal and wind energy are classed as renewable sources.

Question 5

A common square-based rule transforms the first number into the second in three pairs. Which pair violates it?

Accepted Answer

12 : 289. The rule is 2x² − 1: 2 × 100 − 1 = 199, 2 × 64 − 1 = 127 and 2 × 25 − 1 = 49. For x = 12, 2 × 144 − 1 = 287, not 289.

Question 6

Which label should be moved from a natural-satellite display to a planet display?

Accepted Answer

Venus is a planet orbiting the Sun. Titan, Europa and Ganymede are natural satellites orbiting planets.

Question 7

Use A = 1 to Z = 26. Three codes contain only letters whose positions are prime numbers. Which code contains an exception?

Accepted Answer

GLS includes L = 12, which is composite. All positions in BCK, KQW and CMQ are prime: 2, 3, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 or 23.

Question 8

Match each field of study with its subject. Which pairing would require correction?

Accepted Answer

Ornithology : Insects. Ornithology studies birds, not insects; entomology studies insects. The other subject links are correct.

Question 9

Subtract the digit-reversed number from each listed number. Three differences equal 396. Which number gives another result?

Accepted Answer

For abc − cba, use 99(a − c). 853 has 8 − 3 = 5, giving 495; the other outer-digit differences are 4, giving 396.

Question 10

Find the heat-transfer example in which conduction, rather than convection, is the main mechanism.

Accepted Answer

A metal spoon warming in hot tea. Heat travels through the metal spoon by conduction. The other examples involve bulk movement of a fluid, which is convection.

Question 11

Each code has exactly one repeated letter. In three codes, the two copies have exactly two letters between them. Which code differs?

Accepted Answer

The two copies of A in ABCDA have three letters, BCD, between them. In PQRPS, KLMNL and STUVT, the repeated letters have two letters between them.

Question 12

In three pairs, the two numbers have a sum of 100. Which pair instead has a difference of 100?

Accepted Answer

145 : 45. 145 − 45 = 100, but their sum is 190. Each other pair has a sum of 100.

Question 13

Classify these animals by the presence of a vertebral column. Which belongs on the vertebrate side?

Accepted Answer

An eel is a fish with a vertebral column. Octopus, earthworm and snail are invertebrates.

Question 14

Each number is claimed to be the square of a two-digit integer ending in 5. Which claim is false?

Accepted Answer

35² = 1225, 55² = 3025 and 75² = 5625. A square ending in 25 has the form 100a(a + 1) + 25; 48 is not a product of consecutive integers, so 4825 fails.

Question 15

In each group the middle position should equal the absolute difference of the outer positions. Identify the invalid group.

Accepted Answer

TGV has outer difference 22 − 20 = 2, but G = 7. The others give 17 − 11 = 6 = F, 15 − 12 = 3 = C and 23 − 18 = 5 = E.

Question 16

For a first-class lever, the fulcrum lies between effort and load. Which device does not have this arrangement?

Accepted Answer

In a wheelbarrow, the load lies between the wheel's fulcrum and the effort at the handles. In the other devices, the fulcrum is between effort and load.

Question 17

A model-maker needs solids bounded entirely by flat polygonal faces. Which model must be excluded?

Accepted Answer

A cone has a curved surface. Cube, tetrahedron and triangular prism have only flat polygonal faces.

Question 18

Use the relation change of state : final state. Which pair names the wrong final state?

Accepted Answer

Deposition : Liquid. Deposition changes gas directly into solid, not liquid. The other final states are correct.

Question 19

A valid number is divisible by the product of its non-zero digits. Which candidate fails this test?

Accepted Answer

For 136, the digit product is 1 × 3 × 6 = 18, which does not divide 136. The other divisions are 128/16 = 8, 144/16 = 9 and 216/12 = 18.

Question 20

The letters of PLANET must be used exactly once each. Which group violates this requirement?

Accepted Answer

PANTER introduces R and omits L. The other groups rearrange precisely P, L, A, N, E and T.

Question 21

At an Amritsar career workshop, Arjun unscrambles each code into an English occupation. Which person mainly treats illness rather than designing or making things?

Accepted Answer

ROCTOD forms DOCTOR. The others form TAILOR, BAKER and ARCHITECT, occupations involving making or designing things.

Question 22

Check the claimed positive-factor count written after each number. Which claim is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

72 : 10. 72 = 2³ × 3² has (3 + 1)(2 + 1) = 12 factors, not 10. The other counts are 6, 8 and 5.

Question 23

A printer lists the subtractive primary colours used for colour mixing. Which colour should be removed from that list?

Accepted Answer

The subtractive primary colours are cyan, magenta and yellow. Green is formed by combining cyan and yellow.

Question 24

Delete all vowels from each code without rearranging the remaining letters. Which code does not then read the same forwards and backwards?

Accepted Answer

BACTEC. Deleting vowels gives BCTC, which reverses to CTCB. The other results are RSTSR, MPM and LKKL, all unchanged on reversal.

Question 25

When written as fractions of 1000, three numbers represent terminating decimal fractions equal to an integer divided by 8. Which number does not?

Accepted Answer

An integer divided by 8 becomes a multiple of 125 over 1000. 650 is not a multiple of 125, whereas 125, 375 and 875 are.

Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 - Topic Guide and MCQs

What Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 covers

Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4: all 25 questions

Why Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 is worth the hours

Exams where Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 matters

Expected questions from Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4

Keep the Expected MCQs habit running

Previous Year Questions

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Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 - common questions

How long is the Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 quiz?

What kind of questions does Verbal Classifications MCQ – Part 4 ask?

Where else can I practise Reasoning?

Do my scores save?